[To be turned in on Friday]
- Let $f\colon X\to Y$ be a function.
- Prove that if $f$ is one-to-one, then $f(A\cap B)=f(A)\cap f(B)$ for all subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$.
- Show that equality need not hold if $f$ is not one-to-one.
- Extra Credit: Prove the converse of (a).
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